Again, I get it. Because you the sample mean is centered on the sample, not the distribution from which the sample is pulled, dividing by n will bias the variance low. What's always been odd to me is that dividing by n - 1 fixes it. It's one of those results that I understand but still gnaws at me a bit. So, as a public service to anybody else who might be in the same boat, here's the proof that S2 is, in fact, an unbiased estimator of the true variance, σ2.
Feel better? Neither do I. Just learn it and get on with life.
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